A. a weak acid drug with pKa of 5.5 B. a weak base drug with pKa of 7.5 C. a weak base drug with pKa of 4.5 D. a weak acid drug with pKa of 3.5 E. a weak base drug with pKa of 6.5 8. The mechanism of treating

phenobarbital poisoning with bicarbonate sodium is that it

A. neutralizes Phenobarbital

B. stimulates Phenobarbital transference from the brain to the plasma

C. alkalinizes urine fluid, prevents Phenobarbital from reuptake, and stimulates excretion of drug

D. both B and C are right E. both A and C are right

9. After repeated administration of phenobarbital sodium, the patients complain

the drug is less useful, this phenomenon is called

A. tolerance B. resistance C. dependence D. side reaction E. residual effect

10. The effect of pilocarpine on eye is A. miosis, increase intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation

B. miosis, decrease intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation

C. mydriasis, decrease intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation

D. mydriasis, increase intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation

E. mydriasis, increase intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation

11. All of the following statements are related with succinylcholine EXCEPT

A. have muscle fasciculation before muscle relaxation

B. have no ganglionic blocking actions at therapeutic dose C. can be antagonized by neostigmine D. elevate blood potassium concentration E. assistant agents of anesthetics 12. A male patient is brought to the

emergency department following ingestion of an unknown

substance. He is found to have an elevated temperature, hot and flushed skin, dilated pupils,

and tachycardia. Of the following, which would most likely cause these findings? A. propranolol B. tolazoline C. prazosin

D. organophosphate E. atropine

13. A predictably dangerous side effect of metoprolol that constitutes a contraindication to its

clinical use in susceptible patients is the induction of A. hypertension

B. cardiac arrhythmia C. asthmatic attacks D. angina pectoris E. hypersensitivity 4

14. Which of the following therapeutic projects would be used in the treatment of patient with

serious organophosphate intoxication? A．atropine + norepinephrine B．atropine+ neostigmine

C．atropine + pralidoxime iodide D．atropine + epinephrine E．atropine + morphine

15. The released norepinephrine is disposed mainly by

A．the metabolism in the liver B．enzymatic inactivation

C．reuptake by the neuronal terminal D．hydrolysis

E. MAO and COMT in the circulation 16. The elevated blood pressure caused by

epinephrine may be reversed by

A．propranolol B．phentolamine C．norepinephrine D．nicotine E．atropine

17. Epinephrine may be mixed with certain anesthetics, such as procaine, in order to A. stimulate local wound repair B. increase the potency of the local anesthetics

C. enhance their interaction with neural membranes and their ability to depress nerve

conduction

D. retard their systemic absorption

E. facilitate their distribution along nerves 18．Which is correct description about the βadrenoceptor effect?

A．both cardiac excitation and bronchial dilation belong to β1 effect

B．both cardiac excitation and bronchial dilation belong to β2 effect

C．both cardiac excitation and vascular dilation belong to β1 effect

D．both cardiac excitation and vascular dilation belong to β2 effect

E．both vascular dilation and bronchial dilation belong to β2 effect

19. Which is NOT the indication of phentolamine? A．shock

B．diagnosis of pheochromacytoma C．male sexual dysfunction D．primary hypertension

E．peripheral vascular occlusive disorders 20. Chlorpromazine can be used for A. hypertension

B.hypothermic anesthesia C. epilepsy D. coma

E. coronary heart disease

21. Which of the following statements about aspirin is incorrect?

A. its analgesia is due to inhibition of PG synthesis

B. it is mainly used to relieve headache and other dull pain

C. its main adverse effect is GI reaction D. it can inhibit lipoxidase

E. it inhibits the synthesis of both PGI2 and TXA2

22. Extrapyramidal symptoms caused by chlorpromazine is due to

A. blocking DA receptor in midbrainlimbic system

B. inhibiting αreceptor in brain

C. inhibiting DA receptor in tuberoinfunfibular pathway D. inhibiting M receptor in CNS

E. blocking DA receptor in nigro striatal pathway

23. The main reason for the combination use of levodopa with carbidopa is

A. to increase the absorption of Ldopa B. to inhibit levodopa decarboxylation in the periphery

C. to inhibit MAO D. to inhibit COMT E. to increase Ldopa

converting to dopamine directly 24. A three month old

infant is brought to the emergency room with seizures of the tonicclonic

type. His mother reports that these seizures have been occurring for 50min. The treatment of choice is A. Diazepam B. phenytoin C. phenobarbital D. carbamazepine E. valproate sodium

25. Which one of the following analgesic drugs can be used for artificial

hibernation? A. morphine B. methadone C. pethidine D. fetanyl E. anadol

26. All of the following are observed in patients taking neuroleptic agents EXCEPT:

A. sexual dysfunction. B. bronchial asthma

C. altered endocrine function. D. constipation.

E. orthostatic hypotension

27. Which of the following is not the adverse effect of Morphine? A. urinary retention B. nausea and vomiting C. diarrhea D. addiction

E. constriction of bronchial smooth muscle 28. A 50yearold

male with a two year

history of essential hypertension well controlled on

hydrochlorothiazide is found on a recent physical examination to have a blood pressure of

160/105 mmHg. The hydrochlorothiazide is substituted with another agent. Two weeks later,

he returns for followup

complaining of a loss of taste and dry cough. Which of the following

drug is responsible for this ? A. clonidine

B. hydrochlorothiazide C. propranolol D. captopril E. verapamil

29. All of the following are useful in the treatment of digitalis overdose EXCEPT: A. antidigoxin Fragments B. potassium supplements C. lidocaine D. phenytoin E. quinidine

30. Which of the following Lipidemic modulating

drugs that can decrease Lp(a) obviously? A. niacin

B. gemfibrozil C. lovastatin

D. cholestyramine E. probucol

31.Which one of the following is the most serious adverse reaction of statins and this effect

would be increased if a statin is taken with ciclosporin, gemfibrozil or nicotinic acid. A. gastrointestinal problems B. rhabdomyolysis

C. elevated blood pressure D. migraine headaches E. palpitations

32. The antihypertensive mechanism of diuretics for longterm treatment is:

A. increasing water and sodium excretion from the kidneys.

B. decreasing sodium concentration in vascular smooth muscle cell

C. increasing the activity of rennin D. decreasing the activity of rennin

E. decreasing the secretion of aldosterone 33. Which of the following statements is NOT the characteristics of ACEI ? A. it can be used in mild, moderate and severe hypertension

B. it does not cause reflective quick heart rate

C. it not only improve life quality but also decrease mortality

D. it will cause disorder of lipid metabolism E. it will not affect glucose metabolism 34. Which of the following antianginal drugs is harmful to patients with variant

angina?

A. verapamil B. nifedipine C. nitroglycerin D. propranolol E. aspirin

35. Which of the following statements about the treatment of chronic heart failure is wrong?

A. Patients with evidence of fluid retention should receive a diuretic.

B. Treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a βR

blocker should be initiated and maintained unless specifically contraindicated. C. Digoxin may be added if needed to

reduce symptoms or to slow the ventricular response

in patients with rapid atrial fibrillation. D. Patients with severe heart failure should also receive a βR blocker

E. Spironolactone may reduce mortality in patients with severe heart failure 36. A 58yearold

patient with a history of hypertension and congestive heart failure

administrating some drugs, now he

complains of nausea, blurred vision and bradycardia,

intoxication of glycoside is suspected, then digoxin is stopped, which of the following drugs

also must be stopped? A. nifedipine B. diazoxide

C. hydrochlorothiazide D. prazosin E. clonidine

37. A patient with edema is using streptomycin, which of the following diuretics is unwisely used?

A. osmotic diuretics B. thiazide diuretics C. loop diuretics

D. aldosterone antagonists E. triamterone and amilorde

38.The therapeutic effect of β adrenergic receptor blockers such as propranolol in angina

pectoris is believed to be primarily the result of

A. reduced production of catecholamines B. dilation of the coronary vasculature C. decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen

D. increased peripheral resistance

E. increased sensitivity to catecholamines 39. A 59yearold

female with CHF is treated with

Hydrochlorothiazide. What is its primary mechanism of action?

A. inhibition of Na + /K + /2Cl cotransporter

B. inhibition of Na + /Cl cotransporter C. inhibition of sodiumpotassium ATPase

D. inhibition of Na + /H + exchanger E. inhibition of carbonic anhydrase 40.The drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmia caused by cardiac glycosides poisoning is A. propranolol

B. sodium phenytoin C. quinidine D. amiodarone E. procainamide

41. All of the following statement about glucocorticoids are true except

A. inhibiting both the early and the late manifestation of inflammation

B. affecting all types of inflammatory reactions

C. decreasing the number of neutrophils D. inhibiting the release of arachidonic acid E. inhibiting granulation tissue formation 42. Which of the following can be used for

megaloblastic anemia A. folic acid

B. folic acid +VitB12 C. folic acid +VitB6

D. folic acid +VitB12 +VitB6

E. folic acid +VitB12+VitB6+VitC

43. Which of the statements about thiourea is WRONG?

A. They inhibit the synthesis of thyroxine B. They have immunosuppressive effect C. Propylthiouracil stimulates T4 transform to T3

D. They can cause thyroid enlargement when long term used

E. They can excrete from milk and pass through placenta barrier

44. Which of the following factors interferes with the absorption of ferrous agents? A. Gastric acid B. Vit C

C. Foodstuff with abundant calcium and phosphate

D. Fructose in foodstuff E. Cysteine

45. Which of the following is the most important approach in preventing peptic ulcers from recurrence?

A. coating the ulcer crater

B. eradicating infection with H. Pylori

C. inhibiting secretion of gastric acid at the proton pump

D. blocking receptor activation of gastric acid secretion

E. neutralizing secreted gastric acid

46. The antiplatelet mechanism of aspirin is A. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in platelet B. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in endothelium

C. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in platelet D. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in endothelium

E. promoting synthesis of PGE2 in endothelium

47. Which of the following therapies is the best for a patient with status asthmaticus A．aminophylline p.o. B．hydrocortisone i.v.

C．inhaling sodium cromoglycate D．inhaling becmethasone E．salbutamol p.o.

48. Which of the following symptoms is a withdrawal syndrome of glucocorticoids? A. Induction and aggravation of infections B. Rebound phenomenon C. central obesity D. Hypertension E. Osteoporosis

49. All of the following are indications of glucocorticoids EXCEPT A. rheumatic arthritis B. bronchial asthma C. peptic ulcer D. endotoxic shock

E. childhood acute leukemia

50. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the hypoglycemic effect of glibenclamide

A. Stimulating βcell

in pancreatic island directly, prompting the release of insulin

B. Inhibit the activity of α－glycosidase C. Decreasing the absorptiong of glucose D. Increase the sensitivity of insulin to target organism

E. Directly activating insulinreceptors 51. A young woman using an oral contraceptive is to be treated for pulmonary tuberculosis.

She is advised to use an additional method of contraception since the efficacy of the oral agent

is commonly decreased, which drug may include in her regimen? A.streptomycin B.ethambutol C.rifampin D.isoniazid